A.Objective Type Questions
1) Lubrication of ERC and inserts in corrosion prone areas and platform line is done once in a ________.
2) Minimum rail section recommended for section having traffic more than 20GMTs is _____.
3) The rail dolley shall be protected by a flagman at a distance of _____metre on BG from the rail dolley, on a double line in the direction from which train may approach.
4) Permanent closure in running lines for locations such as 500 metre length on both side approaches of tunnels, tunnel proper, major and important bridges
including bridge proper, deep cuttings and high embankments should not be less than______ in length, between two adjoining fish plates.
5) Distance block to platform line are fixed at centre to centre distance of _________.
6) Points & Crossing is laid at a cant of
i) 1 in 20
ii) 1 in 10
iii) 1 in 15
iv) NIL
7) Minimum permissible vertical wear on nose of a 52 kg CMS crossing on Rajdhani route is
i) 6mm
ii) 8mm
iii) 10mm
iv) 12 mm
8) Minimum radius of curves for BG track is______.
9) Minimum height above rail level for high passenger platform is _________.
10) Maximum grade in station yard is ______.
i) Stop dead &10Kmph
ii) 10 Kmph
iii) 15Kmph
iv) 20 Kmph
12) Vertical wear permissible for 60kg/90UTS. rails is ________.
13) Permissible wear of web & foot of rail due to corrosion is ________.
14) Service life in terms of total GMT carried for 52 kg. 90 UTS rail is______
15) Permissible variation of sleepers to sleeper spacing is ______.
16) Normal life of detonators is
i) 5 years
ii) 10 years
iii) 7 years
iv) 6 years.
17) Maximum distance apart of trolley refuges on bridges with main spans of 100metre or more is
i) 50 mtr
ii) 100 mtr
iii) 200 mtr
iv) a refuge over each pair .
18) Permissible vertical wear for tongue rail of 52kg. left hand fan shape curved switch is _____.
19) Permissible creep in track is
i) 50 mm
ii) 100 mm
iii) 125 mm
iv) 150 mm.
20) Maximum distance covered in a day by a Patrolman should not normally exceed
i) 2 km.
ii) 5 km.
iii) 10 km.
iv) 20 km .
21) In case of 52 kg CMS Crossing dimension to be deducted (to account for slope in casting of wing rail to 1:20 cant) from the observed wear measurements to find out the actual wear is ______
Answers:
1) Year 2) 60 kg 3) 1200 meter 4) 11 meter 5) 30 meter 6) NIL 7) 8 mm 8) 175 meter 9) 760 mm 10) 1 in 400 11) 20Kmph 12) 13 mm 13) 1.5 mm 14) 525 GMT 15) ±20 mm 16) 7 years 17) a refuge over each pier 18) 5 mm 19) 150 mm 20) 20 Km. 21) 2 mm
B. Fill in the Blanks:
1. Dynamic gauge in BG is 1750 mm .
2. Maximum super elevation for BG, group ‘A’ route under normal conditions is 165 mm .
3. Maximum degree of a curve, permitted on a plain BG track is 10 o .
4. Maximum values of normal cant deficiency prescribed for BG, A & B groups is 75 mm.
5. The maximum size of track ballast is 65 mm.
6. Minimum depth of ballast cushion below the bottom of sleeper at the rail seat should be 300 mm on BG group A route.
7. Centre to centre spacing (maximum) of wooden sleepers on fish plated BG track is 30 cm .
8. Centre to centre spacing (maximum) of wooden sleepers on fish plated BG track, between joint sleepers and first shoulder sleeper is 61 cm.
9. Sleeper density for group ‘A’ route with traffic density more than 20 GMT is 1660 sleepers per kilometer.
10. The permissible speed, for 1 in 8 ½ symmetrical split with curved switch on BG track, is 30 kmph .
11. Speed in excess of 15 kmph should not be permitted on turn in curves laid with wooden sleepers.
12. SWR shall not be laid on curves sharper than 500 metres radius in both BG and MG.
13. The lubrication of ERCs and insert should be done once in a year in corrosion prone areas and platform lines and once in two years in other areas.
14. For all bridges, in case of LWR track, full ballast section, as specified in LWR Manual should be provided upto 100 metres from the abutments.
15. Flange-way clearance of BG turnouts between running rail and check rail at nose of crossing is 48 mm (maximum) and 44 mm (minimum).
16. Throw of the switch of BG turnouts is 115 mm (maximum) and 95 mm (minimum).
17. There are special chairs provided behind the heel of switch to give a suitable ramp to the tongue rail, which is raised by 6 mm at the heel.
C. Objective Questions on Track Machines:
1. What is the gauge of Auxiliary Track for working of PQRSs?
(A) 3400 mm
(B) 3700 mm
(C) 3000 mm
(D) 1676 mm
2. How many on On-Track track machines can work in a block section at a time as per subsidiary rule?
(A) One
(B) Three
(C) Five
(D) Four
3. Which machine is not a relaying machine:
(A) T-28
(B) TRT
(C) PQRS
(D) UTV
4. What shall be the minimum safe distance between track machines when moving in the block section in convey?
(A) 50 m
(B) 180 m
(C) 120 m
(D) 200 m
5. As per IRTMM, the auxiliary track for PQRS working can be higher than the existing track by not more than:
(A) 40 mm
(C) 25 mm
(D) 10 mm
6. The size of wooden battens for loading PSC sleepers on special BFRs for TRT working shall be
(A) 50 mm X 50 mm
(B) 75 mm X 75 mm
(C) 100 mm X 100 mm
(D) None of the above
7. Maintenance tamping of track during summer season shall not be done when the rail temperature is more than:
(A) td
(B) td+5
(C) td + 10
(D) td – 5
8. What shall be the distance between two track machines during working in a block section?
(A) 50 m
(B) 120 m
(C) 90 m
(D) 180 m
9. What is the minimum cushion of clean ballast is recommended for proper functioning of tamping machines?
(A) 50 mm
(B) 75 mm
(C) 100 mm
(D) 150 mm
10. Recommended tamping (squeezing) pressure for PSC sleeper track, is
(A) 90 – 100 Kg/Sq.cm.
(B) 100 – 110 Kg/Sq.cm.
(C) 110 – 120 Kg/Sq.cm.
(D) 120 – 130 Kg/Sq.cm.
11. The tamping tools shall be replaced when the sectional area of the tool blade is reduced by
(A) 15%
(B) 20%
(C) 25%
(D) 30%
12. What are the main functions of tamping machines?
(A) Correction of Alignment
(B) Correction of longitudinal
(C) Packing under sleepers
(D) All of above
13. Which small track machine is not required for doing welding of rails in LWRs?
(A) Hydraulic Rail Bender
(B) Double Action Weld Trimmer
(C) Rail Profile Grinder
(D) Rail Cutting Machine
14. What is the capacity of non-infringing track jacks normally used for track maintenance
(A) 8 T
(B) 9 T
(C) 10 T
(D) 12 T
15. What are advantages of using Dynamic Track Stabilizer machine
(A) Achieving Spatial Force to
(B) Regaining the resistance free consolidation lateral displacement
(C) Relaxing the speed Restriction
(D) All of above.expeditiously
16. What is recommended squeezing time for maintenance packing
(A) 0.2 sec to 0.4 sec
(B) 0.4 sec to 0.6 sec
(C) 0.6 sec to 0.8 sec
(D) 0.8 sec to 1.0 sec
17. What shall be the ramp gradient before closing the tamping work and obligatory point?
(A) 1 in 600
(B) 1 in 800
(C) 1 in 1000
(D) 1 in 1500
18. Two insertions during tamping of concrete sleepers and required for lift more than
(A) 10 mm
(B) 30 mm
(C) 50 mm
(D) 75 mm
19. After one round of tamping along with DTS after deep screening, the traffic can be resumed with speed restriction of:
(A) 30 KMPH
(B) 40 KMPH
(C) 60 KMPH
(D) 75 KMPH
20. Which machine is used for turnout renewals:
(A) TRT
(B) PQRS
(C) T-28
(D) RAIL-VAC
Answers: - 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-C, 5-B, 6-B, 7-C, 8-A, 9-D, 10-C, 11-B, 12-D, 13-A, 14-A,
15-D, 16-B, 17-C, 18-B, 19-B, 20-C.
D. Objective Questions P & D,SOD:
1. In which category suburban stations have been included as per categorization of station for passenger amenities?
Ans: ‘C’
2. What is the norms for booking facilities (no of counters) for a ‘A’ category station as per minimum essential amenities?
Ans: 15
3. What is the maximum height above rail level of end loading platform for BG?
Ans: 1295mm
4. What is the full form of IVRS?
Ans: Interactive voice Response system.
5. What is the criteria for a ‘D’ category station?
Ans: Passenger earnings between Rs.1 crore and Rs.3 crores per annum.
6. What is the minimum distance of a 3-meters high building on passenger platform from centre of track?
Ans: 5330mm
7. In how many categories stations have been categorized from passenger amenities point of view?
Ans: 6 categories i.e. A,B, C, D, E & F.
8. What is minimum horizontal distance from centre of track to any structure from rail level to 305 mm above rail level for BG in station yard?
Ans: 1675mm
9. What is maximum and minimum horizontal distance from center of track to face of passenger platform coping for BG?
Ans: Max.1680mm Min.1670mm
10. What is maximum height above rail level for low level passenger platform for BG?
Ans: 455mm
11 What is minimum horizontal distance of any telegraph post measured from the center of track at right angles to the nearest track for BG?
Ans: The height of post + 2135mm
12 What is the Plinth area of type-III Quarter?
Ans: 55.75 sq. m.
13. What is minimum no. of urinals required for 100 persons in a office building as per IRWM?
Ans: 4 Nos.
14. For what the word “SRSF” stands for?
Ans: Special Railway Safety Fund.
15 Name the plan head under which construction of a health unit can be sanctioned?
Ans: Plan head 52: Amenities for staff
16. In how many volumes works programme is prepared?
Ans: 5 Nos.
17. In how many days soffit form work to beams can be removed?
Ans: 7 days
18. What is minimum distance from center line of track to duty hut at L-Xing?
Ans: 6.0 m
19 What is the characteristic compressive strength of 150mm cube at 28 days of M20 concrete?
Ans: 20 N/mm2
20. What is recommended gradient in station yard?
Ans: 1:1000
E. Level Crossings:
Q.1. What is the normal position of level crossing gate:
a. Branch line where Railway traffic is less and road traffic is more?
Ans.Open to road traffic.
b. On main line, where TVU is more than 25000.
Ans. Open to road traffic.
c. On B-class level crossing with TVU less than 25000
Ans. Close to road traffic.
Q.2. What is the new criteria of classification of manned level crossings?
Ans.
Class Criteria
Special- TVU>50,000
A TVU> 30,000
Or
Line capacity utilization more than 80% (on single line) and road vehicle more than 1,000)
B TVU>20,000 & road vehicle more than 7.50
C Under consideration of Railway Board.
Q.3 What is the minimum number of gatekeepers required in special class, A- class & B-class?
Ans.3 numbers in special class.2 numbers in A & B classes.
Q4. How the TVU is calculated?
Ans. The multiplication of total number of train units from both side and number of road vehicle unit is cold TVU of level crossing.
Q.5. What is the distance of WIL Boards for unmanned level crossings on single line section and where visibility is clear?
Ans. 350 meters.
Q.6. What is the minimum distance of height gauge in case of level crossings?
Ans. Height gauge should be located at a minimum distance of 8.00 m from gate posts.
Q.7 What is the minimum length of fencing parallel to track with each gatepost on special &A class?
Ans. 15 meters
Q.8. What is the minimum length of fencing parallel to track with each gatepost on B & C class?
Ans. 15 meters
Q.9.What is the gradient of road on C-class level crossing gates?
Ans. 1:15 is the gradient provided on ‘C’ class level crossing gates.
Q.10. Describe the types of gates are in Railway?
Ans. There are two types of gates in Railway:
Traffic gates
Engineering gates
Q.11 What is the distance of speed breakers on the approaches of unmanned level crossing?
Ans. Speed breakers are provided at a distance of 20 M from gate.
Q.12. What legend is written on stop Boards at level crossings?
Ans. Stop, look out for trains before crossing in English, Hindi and Regional language is written on stop Boards.
Q.13. What is the visibility requirements for unmanned level crossing for road users?
Ans. For new unmanned level crossing the visibility requirements for road users along the track shall be 600 m with single or double line track.
F. Questionnaire for 70% Quota Examination:
Q-1 Periodical census of traffic at all level crossings whether unmanned or Manned should between at least
1. Once in six years.
2. Once in one year.
3. Once in five years.
Q-2 Level crossing beyond the outer must stop signals is called
1. Operating gate.
2. Engineering Gate.
3. Operating & Engg. gate.
4. None of the above.
Q-3 Maximum clearance of check rails at level crossing should be
1. 44 mm
2. 48mm
3. 51mm
4. 57mm
Q-4 Minimum clearance of check rails at level crossing should be
1. 48 mm
2. 57 mm
3. 51 mm
4. 44 mm
Q.5 The gauge on BG route of Indian Railways maintained to
1. 1600mm
2. 1676mm
3. 1680mm
4. None of above.
Q.6 Curve inspection shall be carried out by Sectional PWI
1. Once in three months
2. Once in six months
3. Once in four months
4. None of above.
Q.7 Curve inspection shall be carried out by PWI in charge
1. Once in two months
2. Once in four months
3. Once in three months
4. Once in six months.
Q.8 Foot plate Inspection shall be carried out by PWI
1. Once in two months
2. Once in one month
3. Once in three month
4. None of the above.
Q.9 PWI/In charge and his Assistant should carry out the inspection of Points & crossings of passenger running line by rotation
1. Once in two months
2. Once in three months
3. Once in four months
4. None of the above.
Q.10 When check rails of level crossing cannot be refixed & train have to be passed,speed restriction should be imposed
1. 15 kmph
2. 30 kmph
3. 45 kmph
4. None of the above.
Q-11 Averted collision is categories as
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q-12 An accident has taken place at out station and main line is blocked and relief train is to be turned out without medical car. The hooter shall be:
1. 3 long
2. 4 long
3. 4 long, 1 short
4. 3 long, and 1 short
Q-13 Permissible limit for wheel tread diameter for the same axle is
1. 0.5mm
2. 1.00mm
3. 1.75mm
4. 1.25mm
Q-14 Lateral and longitudinal clearance between axle box and axle guard should not exceed
1. 6mm
2. 8mm
3. 10mm
4. 12mm
Q-15 In a semi permanent (BG) diversion the gradient should not be steeper than
1. 1 in 75
2. 1 in 125
3. 1 in 100
4. 1 in 150
G. Track Recording:
Q1. What is the limits of riding index.
Ans.
(i) 4.5 Imposition of speed restriction.
(ii) 3.5 For taking early maintenance.
(iii) 300 For satisfaction level of maintenance.
Q2. What are the parameters which contributes to higher value of riding index.
Ans. Twist, Misalignment, Unevenness and Gauge.
Q3. What is means 0.35 Horizontal peak in OMS recording.
Ans. Alignment kinks and gauge variation.
Q4. Give the formula of TGI Value.
Ans. 2UI+GI+TI+GAI.
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Q5. What is the value of TGI for bad, good or very good.
Ans.
Below 36-Bad.
36 to 49 -Good.
50 to 79 -Very Good.
80 and above -Outstanding.
Q6. What are the deficiencies in track which leads to vertical acceleration peak?
Ans. (i)Low joint (ii) Twist (iii)Slacks (iv) Vertical wear of the rails.(v) Ballast cushion deficiency (vi)Loose packing (vii)Weak formation (viii) Worn out sleeper seat.
Q7. What are the deficiencies in track which leads to horizontal (lateral) acceleration peak?
Ans. (i) Gauge variation (ii) Mis-alignment (iii) Deficient ballast (iv) Weak rail holding seats of the sleeper (v) Side lateral wear of the rail etc.
Q8. What is the 8 peaks recorded by TRC and how do you make use of it
Ans. 8 peaks recorded by TRC means worst location which need attention for improving the TGI Value.
Q9. Prior to TRC what should be your priority for attaining various parameters for effective improvement.
Ans. (i) Attending gauging from one side to the other.(ii) Attend low joints with picking of slacks.
Q10. What is the frequency of TRC.
Ans.
Above 130 kmph. Once in two months.
Above 110 kmph Once in three months.
A&B route. Once in four months.
E&D route. Once in six months.
Group E special. Once in 12 months.
Q11. What is the frequency of Oscillograph high speed.
Ans. Rajdhani route. -Once in four months. Above 100 kmph. -Once in six months.
Q12. What is the frequency of OMS recording.
Ans. Above 100 kmph. -Once in a month. Other route. -Once in two months.
Q13. What is the value for Good, Bad, Outstanding track during OMS recording.
Ans. Av.PPKM. Category of track.
(i) More than 2.00 below average.
(ii)1.00 to 2.00 Good.
(iii)0.25 to1.00 Very Good.
(iv)Upto 0.25. Outstanding.
Q14. What is the peak value during OMS recording.
Ans. Group A, Rajdhani/Shatabadi routes. -0.15g. For other route. -0.20g.
Q15. What is the value of CTR for category of track.
Ans. (i)Negative. Below average.
(ii)0-30 Average.
(iii)30-55 Good.
(iv)56-75 Very Good.
(v)Above 75. Outstanding.
Q16. What is the value of different chords on which SD value is measured for the calculation of TGI.
Ans. Uneveness 9.6M. Twist 3.6M. Alignment. 7.2M.
Q17. As per CRS stipulation, after how month of recording on ‘A’route speed of Rajdhani will be reduced.
Ans. After expiry of 6 months of recording speed of Rajdhani will be reduced to 110 kmph.
Q18. Write down the values of short chord and long chord of different parameter.
Ans. Parameter. Standard. Long Chord.
Unevenness. 3.6M. 9.6M.
Twist. 3.6M. 4.8M.
Alignment. 7.2M. 9.6M.
Q19. What do you understand by three stars (xxx) and two stars (xx) printed in printout of TRC.
Ans. Three stars (xxx) means urgent maintenance and two stars(xx) means planned maintenance is required.
Q20. What do you means by normalised SD value in track recording.
Ans. Normalised SD value of a parameter is the measured SD value divided by SD
value prescribed for urgent maintenance.
Q21. In TRC printout, if the index value of any parameter is less than 36.What does it indicates.
Ans. It indicates that the measured SD value is equal to or greater than SD value specified for urgent maintenance.
Q22. What parameters are recorded by OMS-2000.
Ans. OMS records vertical , lateral acceleration and ride index.
H. Question on LWR:
Q1. What is min. length of LWR?
Ans. Greater than 250m on BG and 500 m on MG.
Q2. What is min. cushion required for LWR?
Ans. 250mm.
Q3. What is steepest grade permitted for LWR?
Ans. 1:100.
Q4. Up to what degree of reverse curves LWR can be continued?
Ans. Upto 875m radius i.e. 2”.
Q5. Which rails sections are permitted for LWR?
Ans. BG-90R/52kg./60kg. MG-75R/90R.
Q6. When the Hot weather patrolling is introduced?
Ans. When the rail temp. exceeds td+200C.
Q7. When Cold weather patrolling is introduced?
Ans. When rail temp. is less than td-300C.
Q8. What is the beat of patrolman in LWR/CWR section?
Ans. Two kilometer for one patrolman.
Q9. What is the lowest level of supervisor for destressing of LWR?
Ans. PWI.
Q10. What is mean rail temperature (tm)?
Ans. It is the average of maximum and minimum temperatures recorded for a section.
Q11. What is prevailing rail temperature(td)?
Ans. Prevailing rail temperature (tp)is the rail temperature prevailing at the time when any operation connected with destressing is carried out.
Q12. What is SEJ?
Ans. It is switch Expansion Joint. It is expansion joint installed at each and of LWR/CWR to permit Expansion/Contraction of the adjoining breathing lengths due to temperature variations.
Q13. What is Glued Joint?
Ans. The Glued joint G3(L) type is provided in all insulations for trackcircuting in LWR/CWR.
Q14. What is breathing length?
Ans. Breathing length is that length at each end of LWR/CWR which is subjected to Expansion/Contraction on account of temperature variations.
Q15. What are Buffer Rails?
Ans. Buffer rails are a set of rails provided in lieu of SEJ at the ends of LWR/CWR to allow Expansion/Contraction of adjoining breathing lengths due to temperature variations. These will be laid with prior approval of Chief Track Engineer at the locations where provision of SEJ is not permitted.
Q16. Up to what degree of curve SEJ can be provided?
Ans. Upto 0.50 curve.
Q17. What is the condition regarding L-Xing in LWR/CWR?
Ans. L.Xing should not fall in breathing length of LWR/CWR.
Q18. What should be the gap at SEJ?
Ans. Gap at SEJ shall be adjusted at the time of laying/subsequent destressing of LWR/CWR as under: Rail section laid. Gap to be provided at td. 52kg./60kg. 40mm.
Others. 60mm.
Q19. Thermal force in LWR is calculated?
Ans. The thermal force ‘P’ is calculated by the following formula:
P=EAxt
Where ‘P’-Thermal force in the rail(kg).
‘E’-Modulus of Elasticity of rail steel,(2.15x10kg/sq.cm).
A-Area of cross section of the rail (sq. cm).
d-Coefficient of linear expansion of steel (152x10/0C).
t-Variation of rail temperature from td/t(C0).
Q20. What is destressing temperature (td)?
Ans. Destressing temperature (td) is the average trail temperature during the period of fastening the rails to the sleepers after destressing LWR without the use of rail tensor. If rail tensor is used, td for all practical purposes is equal to stress free temperature to
Range of td or to shall be within the limits of rail temperature shown below:-
Rail Section. Range.
(i)52kg. and heavier. tm+50C to tm+100C.
(ii)Others. tm to tm+50C.
I. General mixed questions:
a] Find The Correct Statement:
1. In case of heel and C.I blocks behind the heel, all holes are perpendicular to:
<WA>Perpendicular to left hand side<WA>Drilled at angle Q/2<CA>Right hand side of block<WA>None of these
2. The two locations where wear of tongue rail is to measured are:
<WA>150mm and 1m behind ATS <WA>300mm behind ATS and at H.<CA>Where head width of tongue rail is 13mm and at JOH
3. No part of the tree shall be nearer than ... from the nearest live conductor
<CA>4 m<WA>5 m<WA>6 m<WA>7 m
4. Max. rate of change of cant/cant deficiency on transition curve is
<WA>45mm/Sec. <CA>55mm/Sec. <WA>35mm/Sec. <WA>25mm/Sec.
5 Frequency of inspection of manned level Xing by PWI is
<CA>Once a month <WA>Once a week <WA>Once a fortnight <WA>Once in 6 months
6. During welding of a rail joint with tensor, tensor may be opened after
<WA>5 minutes <WA>10 minutes <WA>15 minutes <CA>20 minutes
7. Maximum speed of Lorry when visibility is clear
<WA>6 Kmph<CA>10 Kmph <WA>15 Kmph <WA>20 Kmph
8. For 52 Kg 75 mm Gap welding finished weld tolerances are measure by
<WA>10 cm straight edge <CA>15 cm straight edge <WA>25 cm straight edge <WA>1 m straight edge
9. Speed restiction on rail clusters shall be
<CA>10 Kmph<WA>15 Kmph<WA>20 Kmph<WA>30 Kmph
10. The speed restriction on level Xing if check rail is not fixed
<WA>20 Kmph<CA>30 Kmph<WA>40 Kmph<WA>50 Kmph
11. The equilibrium super elevation is
<WA>Directly proportional to V <CA>Directly proportional to square of V <WA>Inversely proportional to V <WA>Not related to V
12. Minimum clean cushion required for TTM working is
<WA>100mm <CA>150mm <WA>200mm <WA>300mm
b] Find The Correct Statement:
1. Maximum Horizontal distance from centre of track to face of any platform wall in BG is 1905mm.
2. Maximum height above rail level for high level passenger platform is 840 mm.
3. Maximum height above rail level for low passenger platform is 405mm.
4. Minimum horizontal distance from centre of track to face of any platform wall in BG is 1675mm
Answer 3
1.The designed Toe-load of ERC MK III flat Toe is 850-1100kg
2.The Toe load deflection corresponding to the designed toe load for MK III flat toe clip is 13.5mm .
3.The approximate weight of ERC MK III flat toe is 0.91kg.
4.The Bar dia of ERC MK III flat toe is 18.64.
Answer 4
1.Minimum distance of height gauge at level crossing from gate post is 10 m.
2.Minimum height of height gauge at level crossing from road level is 4.67 m.
3.Minimum distance of gate post at level crossing from centre line of track is 3 m .
4.Minimum distance of gate lodge from centre line of track is 6 m.
Answer 1
1.Ride index is a measure of passenger comfort.
2.Indian railway has adopted Dr. Sperling Ride index formula.
3.He was a Franch Engineer .
4.Lower value of Ride Index are preferable.
Answer 3
1.Minimum distance of stop board from centre line of track on unmanned level crossing is 5 m .
2.Minimum distance of whistle board at level crossing from end of road is 600 m.
3.Minimum distance of speed breakers at level crossing from gate post is 30 m
4.Minimum distance of fish plated joints in SWR track from end of level crossing is 6 m.
Answer 3
The reason for providing super elevation is
1.To have a better distribution of load on two rails.
2.To reduce the wear & tear of rails and rolling stocks.
3.To neutralise the effect of centrifugal force.
4.To increase the haulage capacity of vehicle.
ANSWER 3
J. Fill in the Blanks:
1 Laying tolerance for sleeper spacing is...+/_ 20mm..."
2 The minimum radius for vertical curves on 'A' route is...4000....m"
3 Modulus of elasticity of rail steel is ........2.15*10..Kg/sqcm"
4 "Lateral wear permitted for 60kg tongue rail is"..8mm
5 Squeezing pressure in case of PRC sleeper is..110 to 120kg/sqcm....."
The normal life of detonators is seven years. The life of the detonators can be extended to ten years on an yearly basis subject to the condition that two detonators from each lot of over 7 year old ones are tested for the explosive content and the results being found satisfactory.
For new unmanned level X-ings the visibility requirements for road users along the track shall be 600 m with single or double line track. Where this is not feasible, the distance may be reduced suitably with the approval of Chief Engineer provided the maximum permissible speed is less than 100 kmph
In case of LWR if rail temperature after a maintenance operation exceeds td + 20 degree C, then during the period of consolidation as per para 1.18 of LWR manual a speed restriction of 50 kmph on BG shall be imposed when shoulder and crib compaction has been done.
K. What is My Name:
1. I can rebuild the lateral resistance of track 2. My maximum self propelled speed is 60 Kmph
2. My working speed is 0 to 2.5 Kmph 4.I am Primarily used behind the tamping machine 5. My weight is 57 Tonnes
Ans: Dynamic track stablizer
3 . I am essential for protection of the track. 2. I need careful custody 3. My colour
is red 4. My extended life is 10 years 5. I sound caution to the driver
Ans: DETONATOR
4. I am an activity to be performed once in every 10 years 2. I am useful in improving drainage
5 . I am useful in improving running on track 4. I am an activity to be performed under speed restriction
6. I am an activity for which sufficient ballast has to be arranged
Ans: DEEP SCREENING
7 . I am an activity to be performed during moderate temperature 2. I require
looking mirror and convex lens
8 . When performed on large scale speed restriction shall be required 4. If I am carefully performed the fracture instances will be minimised 5. I facilitate expansion and contraction of fish plated joints
Ans: Lubrication of fish plated joints
L. True or False:
1 SEJs are to be inspected by PWI once a month in extreme summer months.
<WA>True <CA>False
2. If the temperature rises above td+20 degree C, hot weather patrolling will be started by Gang mate.
<CA>True <WA>False
3. On ballasted deck bridge the trolly refuge should be min. 100m apart.
<WA>True <CA>False
4. A ramp of 1 in 1000 shall be given before closing the tamping work.<CA>True
<WA>False
5 Any deviation from the dimension of schedule I will require prior sanction of CRS.
<CA>True <WA>False
Q1. Write short note on Gauge variation.
Ans. This is measured as deviation from nominal gauge which is 1676mm for BG. Unevenness.
Ans. This is measured in terms of difference in longitudinal levels over a fixed base. It is measured over a chord of 3.5M for left and right rails separately. Cross level difference.
Ans. This is measured in terms of relative difference in level of 2 rail tops measured at the same point. Twist.
Ans. This is measured in terms of change in cross levels per unit length of measurement. This is denoted as mm/metre.
Q2. What are service tolerances?
Ans. These are tolerances to which track parameters may vary any time during the service. These are based on acceptable limits of riding comfort in relation to the
vehicles in use.
Service Tolerances for 120kmph on BG.
S.no. Parameters. Tolerances.
01. Gauge.
(a) On straight track. +6mm-3mm.
(b) On curves upto 40 +13mm-3mm.
02. Twist.
(a) On straight and curved track 2mm/m.other than transitions.
(b) On transition. 1mm/m.
Alignment.
(a) On straight. 5mm.
(b) On curves. 5mm.
Q3. What are new track tolerances Give values for Gauge, Alignment, Cross Level and Sleeper Spacing.
Ans. These are the tolerances prescribed for laying the new track. The measurements
should be taken in floating conditions three months after normalisation of speed.
Following are the tolerances prescribed for the track laid with new material.
S.no. Parameters. Value.
01. Gauge. + -2mm.
02. Expansion Gap. + -2mm.
03 Squareness of joints on +-10mm.
straight.
04. Sleeper Spacing. +-20mm.
05. Cross Level. +-3mm.
M. Works
1 Standing earnest money for contract having tender value Rs.18.00 lacs
Rs. 18,000/-
Rs. 20,000/-
Rs. 22,000/-
Rs. 10,000/-
Ans: Rs. 20,000
2 The tender cost of work is Rs. 4,20,000/-. What will be earnest money?
Rs. 10,500/-
Rs. 10,000/-
Rs. 9,500/-
Rs. 11,000/-
Ans: Rs. 10,000/-
3 The tender cost of work is Rs. 5,60,000/-. What will be security Deposit?
Rs. 35,500/-
Rs. 37,000/-
Rs. 33,000/-
Rs. 30,000/-
Ans: Rs. 35,500/-
4 What is the validity period in which tender offer remain open?
60 days
90 days
75 days
180 days
Ans: 90 days
5 Maximum limit of one quotation can be called by J.A. grade officer
Rs. 50,000/-
Rs. 40,000/-
Rs. 1,00,000/-
Rs. 2,00,000/-
Ans: Rs. 1,00,000/-
6 The tender cost of work is Rs. 15 lacs. What will be cost of tender form?
Rs. 500/-
Rs. 1,000/-
Rs. 1,500/-
Rs. 2,000 /-
Ans: Rs. 1,000/-
7 How many estimates are in use?
6
7
8
5
Ans: 7
8 The stage at which addendum cum corrigendum is required-
When the individual item varies 10% from the agreement
When the individual item varies 20% from the agreement
When the individual item varies 25% from the agreement
None of the above
Ans: When the individual item varies 25% from the agreement
9 The cost of a deposit work is Rs. 10,00,000/- . How much amount the party has to deposit with Railway man for preparation of plan and estimate-
Rs. 10,000/-
Rs. 20,000/-
Rs. 15,000/-
Rs. 25,000/-
Ans: Rs. 20,000/-
10 The cost of open tender is Rs. 4.50 lacs. Who will be the tender committee
members?
Sr. Scale Office of executive Department and Sr. Scale Officer of Account Department.
Sr. Scale Office of executive Department and Jr. Scale Officer of Account Department.
Jr. Scale Office of executive Department and Sr. Scale Officer of Account Department.
Jr. Scale Office of executive Department and Jr. Scale Officer of Account Department
Ans: Jr. Scale Office of executive Department and Jr. Scale Officer of Account Department
11 The approved list of ‘C’ class Contractor is maintained at
Assistance Divisional Office
Divisional Office
Zonal Railway man office
None of the above.
Ans: Divisional Office
12 How many type of approved list of contractor is being maintained?
4
5
6
3
Ans: 5
13 How many class of tender is being used?
Open tender and limited tender
Limited tender and single tender
Open tender, limited tender and single tender
None of the above.
Ans: Open tender, limited tender and single tender
14 Contractor has demanded an arbitration of Rs. 9.50 lacs. How many Arbitrator will be appointed?
Sole Arbitrator
Two Arbitrator
Three Arbitrator
None of the above.
Ans: Sole Arbitrator
15 Who is competent to appoint an arbitrator
DRM
Territorial HOD
Principal HOD
General Manager
Ans: General Manager
16 Delayed Tender is-
When tender is received before the due date and time.
When tender is received after the due date and time, but before opening the tender.
When tender is received after the due date and time and after opening the tender.
None of the above.
Ans: When tender is received after the due date and time and after opening the tender.
17 Arbitration Act was revised in
1994
1996
1998
1999
Ans: 1996
18 Urgency Certificate is issued for the work to
carry out the repair work affected by flood.
To carry out the repair caused due to accident.
Or other unforeseen contingency caused due to accident or flood.
All of the above.
Ans: All of the above.
N. Water Supply & Hydraulics:
1 Device meant for measuring the discharge in a pipe is called …………….
Ans: Venturimeter
2 Device meant for measuring velocity in a pipe is called …………….
Ans: Pitot Tube
3 The sum of Potential energy, Pressure energy and ......................energy constitutes Bernaullis theorem with empirical formula (Z+p/w +v2/2g )
Ans: Kinetic
4 For a circular channel of diameter ‘D’, the depth of flow for maximum velocity is ..……..D.
Ans: 0.81
5 For a circular channel of diameter ‘D’, the depth of flow for maximum discharge is …….D.
Ans: 0.95
6 Best trapezoidal channel of best section giving maximum discharge should have side angle………….to the horizontal.
Ans: 60 deg
7 Triangular channel of best section giving maximum discharge should have side angle …………...to the horizontal.
Ans: 45 deg
8 The water quality is said alkaline when pH value is………….and acidic when pH is …….
Ans: 8 to 14 & 1 to 6
9 The required residual chlorine in drinking water at every tapping point should be……….ppm.
Ans: 0.5
10 ……………… is the term used in which liquid offers resistance to any deforming forces.
Ans: Viscosity
11 A type of flow in which fluid particles move in layers is called………………….. flow.
Ans: Laminar
12 Rate of pumping should be ………………than the rate of recharge in a tubewell for longer life of a tubewell.
Ans: lesser
13 The radial distance between two tubewells should not be less than ………….…mtrs.
Ans: 150
14 The viscosity of a fluid ……………………...with the increase of temperature.
Ans: decreases
15 The density of a fluid…………………..with temperature and pressure.
Ans: Varies
16 The property of a fluid by virtue of which the molecules of a liquid remain attached to each other is called……………………..
Ans: adhesion
17 The property of a fluid which offers a tensile resistance at its surface is called…………….
Ans: Surface Tension
18 Viscosity of water is ……………… times higher than the viscosity of air.
Ans: 50
19 A circular plate of diameter ‘d’ is held vertically in water so that the upper end of the vertical diameter is at water surface. The depth of centre of pressure is…………………..
Ans: 0.62 d
20 When a body is immersed in a liquid, the liquid will exert an upward force on the body equal to the weight of the liquid displaced. The upward force is known as ……………….
Ans: Buoyancy
O.Soil Mechanics & Construction Materials:
Q1 The desirable silt contents in an alluvial soil suitable for the production of structural bricks is
(a) 20-30%
(b) 40-65%
(c) 65-75%
(d) less than 10 %
A. (a) 20-30%
Q.2 Water absorption in 1st class bricks should not be more than
(a) 10%
(b) 15%
(c) 20%
(d) 25%
A. [c] 20%
Q.3 The dimensions of standard brick are
(a) 19x9x9 cm
(b) 20x10x10 cm
(c) 19x9x4 cm
Ans. [c] 19x9x9 cm.
Q.4 Efflorescence of bricks is due to
(a) Soluble salts present in clay for making bricks.
(b) High porosity of bricks
(c) High silt content in brick earth.
(d) Excessive burning of bricks.
A. [a] Soluble salts present in clay for making bricks.
5. Seasoning of timber is necessary to:
(a) Increase the fire resistance
(b) Increase the vermin resistance
(c) Reduce the microbial substances
(d) Expel the moisture present in timber.
A. [d] Expel the moisture present in timber
Q.6 How many days, a timber may require for natural seasoning
(a) 20 months
(b) 4-6 month
(c) 1 year
(d) 2 year
A. [b] 4 – 6 months
Q7 Soundness test of cement is done to determine its
a. Durability in sea water.
b. Free lime content.
c. Iron oxide content.
d. Alumina content.
A. [b] free-lime content
Q .8. The volume (cu. m.) of a bag of cement is about
(a) 0.035
(b) 0.053
(c) 0.35
(d) 0.53
A. [a] 0.035
Q.9. Segregation in cement concrete is defined as
(a) Separation of coarser particles from mix.
(b) appearance of cement and water slurry over surface of finished concrete.
(c) formation of capillary pores in fresh cement concrete.
A. [a] Separation of coarser particles from mix.
Q.10. When cement content in cement mortar is reduced, the
a. slump increases
b. consistency decreases
c. compressive strength decreases
A. [a] slump increases
Q.11. Normal curing period for lime mortar is
(a) 3 days
(b) 7days
(c) 10 days
(d) 14 days
A. [b] 7 days
Q.12. The compacting factor test of cement concrete determines its
(a) strength
(b) porosity
(c) workability
(d) degree of compaction under loads
A. [c] Workability
Q.13. In anticorrosive paints, pigment used is
(a) aluminum powder
(b) red lead
(c) copper powder
A. [b]. Red lead.
Q.14 The function of a base in paint is
a. to provide a film on surface
b. to hide imperfection of surface
c. to reduce shrinkage cracks in paint film.
d. to make paint of desired consistency
A. [c] to reduce shrinkage cracks in paint film.
Q.15. In railway tracks metal used is
(a) cast iron
(b) wrought iron
(c) mild steel
(d) stainless steel
A. [c] mild steel
Q.16. A well graded sand has particles
a. mainly of just one size
b. mainly of sand combined with gravel
c. of number of sizes
d. with uniformity coefficient very near to unity
A. [c] of number of sizes
Q.17 The possibility of quick sand condition will be there when flow of water to soil is
(a) horizontal
(b) upward
(c) downward
(d) radial
A. [b] upwards.
Q.18 Determination of coefficient of permeability by means of a field pumping test
can be done for
(a) soft clay
(b) sandy soil
(c) stiff clay
(d) marine clay
A. [b] Sandy soil
Q.19. Optimum moisture content is the moisture content at which
a. settlement is maximum
b. permeability is more
c. dry density is maximum
d. shear strength is less
A. [c]. dry density is maximum
Q.20. Primary consolidation is due to
a. expulsion of water
b. compression of air
c. expulsion of water
d. structural adjustment of grains
A. [a] expulsion of water
P. Multiple Choice Questions on Land Management:
Q.1. Height of boundary stone above ground is
a) 500 mm
b) 600m
c) 400mm
d) Any one of above
Ans. a) 500mm
Q.2 Maximum distance between two boundary stones is
a) 100m
b) 150m
c) 200m
d) None of these
Ans. c) 200m
Q.3 Hard type encroachment is:
a) Category’A’
b) Cat. ‘B’
c) Cat. ‘C&D’
d) Cat. “A&B”
Ans. Cat. ‘A’
Q.4 Which of the following required PPE Act proceedings to remove:
a) Category’A’
b) Cat. ‘B’
c) Cat. ‘C&D’
d) Cat. “A&B”
Ans. Cat. ‘A’
Q.5 Standing Committee of land rates consists of
a) CE/G, FA&CAO, CSC
b) CE/MRTS, CE/G, FA&CAO
c) CE/MRTS, FA&CAO, CCM
d) CCM, CE/G, FA&CAO
Ans. c) CE/MRTS,FA&CAO,CCM
Q.6. Maximum licensing period of land for Government school for children of Railway employee is :
a) 30 yrs.
b) 40 yrs.
c) 50 yrs
d) 45 yrs.
Ans. a) 30 yrs
Q.7 Maximum licensing period of land for Kendriya Vidalaya is:
a) 50 yrs.
b) 60 yrs.
c) 80-90 yrs.
d) 99 yrs.
Ans. d) 99 yrs
Q.8 Contingency charges included by Railway in relinquishment estimate is:
a) 4%
b) 3%
c) 5%
d) 3-5%
Ans. b) 3
Q. 9 Outsider encroachment falls in category of encroachment as:
a) Cat.’ A&C’
b) Cat. ‘ C&D’
c) Cat. ‘B&C’
d) Cat. ‘A&B’
Ans. d) Cat ‘A&B’
Q.10 Revision of license fee will be done at the increment per annum
a) 10%
b) 12%
c) 15%
d) None of these
Ans. a) 10
Q.11 In case of GMF, AEN can extant the licensing period up to the total of
a) 3 yrs.
b) 5 yrs.
c) 7 yrs.
d) 4 yrs.
Ans. b) 5 yrs
Q.12 1 Kanal is equal to:
a) 5400 sqft
b) 5000 sqft
c) 5445 sqft
d) 4500 sqft
Ans. c) 5400 sqft
Q.13 I begah is equal to :
a) 27220 sqft
b) 2700 sqft
c) 27225 sqft
d) 30000sqft
Ans c) 27225 sqft
Q.14. Within station premises who is responsible for encroachment?
a) SM & RPF Inspector
b) SSE/Works
c) SSE/Works & SSE/P.Way
d) All of above
Ans. a) SM&RPF Inspector
Q. 15. Railway Board’s letter No. 90/LML/14/34 is related to:
a) Encroachments
b) Cat C&D encroachment
c) Trespassing
d) PPE Act
Ans. b) Cat C&D encroachment
Q. 16. General size of plot licensed for GMP is
a) 1-5 acres
b) 1-3 acres
c) 1-4 acres
d) None of these
Ans. b) 1-3 acres
Q.17 R & R Policy is applicable on:
a) Circulating areas
b) Safety zone
c) Officer Colony
d) All of above
Ans. b)Safety zone
Q. 18. Records for ownership of land in states other than U.P. is:
a) Musabi
b) Khasra
c) Jamabandi
d) all of them
Ans. c) Jamandi
Q.19. Authenticated land plans bears the number as:
a) CE
b) LCO
c) HQ
d) None of these
Ans. b) LCO
Q.20 Scale of authenticated land plan is:
a) equal to Revenue scale
b) Half to Revenue scale
c) Double to Revenue scale
d) 1 cm to 40 m
Ans. a) Equal to Revenue scale
Q. ROB/RUB:
Q.1. What is the carriageway width of two lanes Road Over Bridge:
(a) 8.0m (b) 7.5m (c) 7.00m (d) 8.5m
Ans. 1. (b)
Q.2. What is the minimum clearance between top of highest rail level to bottom of girder of Road Over Bridge:
(a) 6500 (b) 6250 (c) 6300 (d) 5870
Ans. 2. (d)
Q.3. What is the minimum horizontal distance between centerline of track to pier:
(a) 3550 (b) 3500 (c) 3525 (d) 3575
Ans. 3. (a)
Q.4. What is the minimum horizontal distance between centerline of track to abutment:
(a) 4500 (b) 4550 (c) 4350 (d) 4375
Ans. 4. (c)
Q.5. How much TVUs are required for cost sharing of two lane ROB in lieu of level crossing:
(a) 2,00,000 (b) 1,50,000 (c) 3,00,000 (d) 1,00,000
Ans. 5. (d)
Q.6. How much and which charges are levied for construction of ROB/RUBs on deposit terms in replacement of level crossings and work executed by Railway?
Ans. 6. There are following charges which are levied for construction of ROB/RUBs on deposit terms in replacement of level crossing and work executed by Railway:
1. D&G (supervision) @ 12.5 %
2. P&E charges @ 2%
3. Departmental charges @ 12.5%
4. Capitalized Maintenance charges @ 30% capitalized
5. Contingencies @ 1%
Q.7. How much and which charges are levied for construction of ROB/RUBs on BOT basis involving closure of level crossings and work executed by Railway?
Ans. 7. Following charges are levied for construction of ROB/RUBs on BOT basis involving closure of level crossings and work executed by Railway:
1. D&G (supervision) @ 12%
2. P&E charges @ 2%
3. Maintenance @ 30% capitalized
4. Contingencies @ 1%
Q.8. What is B.O.T system?
Ans. 8. Under BOT system, the entrepreneur provides the full funds and builds the ROB/RUB as per plans and drawings approved by the Railway administration/road authority and the private entrepreneur is permitted to levy toll on road traffic for specific period. At the end of the agreed period, the structure would revert back to road athority.
Q.9. What is the carriageway of two lane ROB on National Highway:
(a) 10.00m (b) 8.5m (c) 9.50m (d) 9.00m
Ans. 9. (c)
Q.10. Which para of Engineering code deals with cost sharing of ROB/RUBs:
(a) 1716 (b) 1814 (c) 1816 (d) 1819
Ans.10. (c)
Q.11. How much P&E charges are levied on deposit/BOT works of ROB/RUBs:
(a) 1% (b) 3% (c) 2% (d) 4%
Ans. 11. (c)
Q.12. How much D&G (Supervision) charges are levied on deposit/BOT works of ROB/RUBs in case of the work is executed by Railway:
(a) 12% (b) 13% (c) 11.5% (d) 12.5%
Ans. 12. (d)
Q.13. How much charges are levied on deposit/BOT works of ROB/RUBs in case the work is executed by party under Railway supervision:
(a) 6% (b) 6.25% (c) 6.50% (d) 6.15%
Ans. 13. (b)
Q.14. How much capitalized maintenance charges are levied on deposit/BOT cost sharing works of ROB/RUBs:
(a) 30% (b) 25% (c) 3% (d) 4%
Ans. 14. (a)
Q.15. How much department charges are levied on BOT work of ROB/RUBs:
(a) 12.5% (b) 12% (c) Nil (d) 10%
Ans. 15. (c)
Q.16.What and how much charges are levied on cost sharing works of ROB/RUBs?
Ans. 16.There are following charges which are levied on cost sharing works of ROB/RUBs:
1. D&G @ 8.22% on Railway share
2. D&G @ 12.5% on State share
3. Contingencies @ 1% on Railway and State share
4. Departmental @ 12.5% on State share
5. Capitalized maintenance @ 30% on State share
6. Supervision charges @ 12.5% on capitalized maintenance.
Q.17. Who has to construct the bridge portion and approaches of ROB in case of cost sharing works?
Ans. 17. The bridge portion will be constructed by Railway and approaches will be constructed by State Government in case of cost sharing works.
Q.18. Who will bear the cost of extra length for future tracks?
Ans. 18 The Railway will bear the cost of extra length of ROB for future tracks.
Q.19. Who will bear the cost of construction of extra width of ROB as per provision in para 1816 of Engineering code?
Ans. 19. State Government will bear the cost of extra width of ROB as per provision in para 1816 of Engineering code.
Q.20. What is the full name of BOT?
Ans. 20 Build-Operate-Transfer.
R. Establishment Matters and Labour Laws:
Q.1. Mark correct answers:
1.1 From which date the reservation of OBC become applicable:
i. 8-9-1993,
ii. 8-9-1992
iii. 8-9-1995
iv. 8-9-1990
Ans.1.1. (i)
1.2 What is the percentage of reservation in Northern Railway for SC/ST/OBC:
i. 20:5:27
ii. 19:4:27
iii. 15:7:27
iv. 15:10:27
Ans.1.2. (ii)
1.3 What is the provision of issuing Railway passes to OBC candidate for written test/viva voce of direct recruitment:
i. Passes are given
ii. Passes are not given
iii. Passes are given only written test
iv. None.
Ans.1.3. (ii)
1.4 How many Union representatives are allowed to attend PNM meeting at Headquarter level?
i. 20
ii. No limit
iii. 30
iv. None
Ans.1.4. (i)
1.5 How many PREM Meeting are held at division level?
i. Six
ii. Four
iii. Eight
iv. None
Ans.1.4. (i)
Q.2. Give the correct answer:
2.1 What is the maximum advance admissible on account of marriage of daughter?
Ans.2.1. 10 months
2.2 Which is the standard form used for issuing the charge sheet to a retired Railway employee?
Ans.2.2. SF-14
2.3 When was the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) formed?
Ans.2.3. On 27th Feb.1985
2.4 How many cases can be taken by a retired employee to act as defence helper?
Ans.2.4. Not more than 5 cases at a time.
2.5 What minimum and maximum family pension admissible?
Ans.2.5. Minimum- Rs.1275/- P.M Maximum- Rs.9000/- P.M.
Q.3. Filling up the blanks:
3.1 Who is the Chairman of PREM meeting at Headquarters level?
Ans. 3.1. GM
3.2 Reservation to SC/ST candidates in promotion from Group ‘C’ to Group ‘B’ is applicable w.e.f. ---------------------------.
Ans. 3.2. 20.7.74
3.3 The maximum limit for accumulation of LHAP is -----------------------.
Ans. 3.3. No limit
3.4 Contract Labour Act 1970 was introduced on -------------------------.
Ans. 3.4. 10.2.1971
Q.4. Write true or false against the following:
4.1 There is a chance where some punishment cannot be imposed by the authority that issues S.F 11.
Ans. 4.1. True.
4.2 Three dependent can be included in the Ist class privilege pass but total should not exceed five.
Ans. 4.2. False.
4.3 TA is not admissible to union representatives when they have attended PNM meeting out of Headquarter.
Ans. 4.3. True.
4.4 A casual labour can be granted Temporary status after completion of 120 days continuous service in construction organization.
Ans. 4.4. False.
4.5 Special family planning increment cannot be granted on a certificate issued by non-Railway Hospital.
Ans. 4.5. False.
* - * - *
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